Submitted by riztikhein t3_y2q38l in askscience
More specifically, I’ve heard that smokers’ children have a higher risk of asthma and respiratory infections and that they are affected through passive smoking (also when the smoker just breathes after having smoked recently) and through epigenetics, but it seems a bit unbelievable.
If true, what is the pathophysiology of this? Do they have less mucus and more debris in the respiratory tract or something like that?
Are smokers’ children more likely to have a worse sense of smell or no sense of smell?
Are smokers’ children more likely to be infected with typical viruses that go under the “common cold” term?
I’ve also heard that smokers’ grandchildren are affected through epigenetics. How exactly are they affected?
[deleted] t1_is4waew wrote
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