Submitted by Hola3008 t3_1238mmm in askscience
When a body part is compressed for a short period of time, why are only sensory neurons affected (paresthesia/anesthesia) by compression but not motor neurons (paralysis)? Like, the body part gets numb/tingly, but voluntary movement continues to function. Why is this the case?
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EDIT:
Yes, I am aware that mild paralysis occurs with compression, but this tends to occur later. Also, by "compression", I meant like when your arm, thigh, etc., is squished, not like carpal-tunnel-like nerve compression.
Also, thanks for all your wonderful input, but I would really appreciate some sources.
BeneficialWarrant t1_jdu0rmz wrote
While I don't know the full answer, I can assure you that motor deficit does occur with even mild mixed peripheral nerve compression. Weakness and muscle atrophy is a hallmark sign of nerve entrapment, although I agree that sensory effects often seem more immediately noticeable.
Perhaps unconscious proprioceptive feedback circuits modulate motor tone to compensate for mild weakness and ensure normal posture. Or perhaps somatosensory deficit is more bothersome and therefore more consciously noticeable. Or perhaps it has to do with a difference in fiber physiology or myelination. I'd guess it has more to do with the first 2, and its simply that the body is more consciously aware of sensory deficit while mild motor deficit is handled more unconsciously.
Edit: As another person pointed out, the correct answer is that sensory fibers are conveyed around the periphery and motor towards the center of the nerve. Appreciate the love though. I tried my best.