Submitted by senpai_maccer t3_11xeku9 in askscience
El_Sephiroth t1_jd8g124 wrote
Reply to comment by acquavaa in When the amplitude of a longitudinal wave changes, why doesn't the wavelength change? by senpai_maccer
The analogy really ain't that good. Try with a water wave or a guitar string. If you pull a guitar string further the vibration it has gets a bigger amplitude but its mechanical resistance and border limitations won't change. This means the string will move faster or slower but it will oscillate at the same frequency.
Since the frequency is the same, the note is the same. But since amplitude varies, the sound is more intense.
Coomb t1_jd8p3ae wrote
Are you trying to draw a distinction here somehow between the wave dynamics in a guitar string and the dynamics in a rubber band that's pulled taut enough to support oscillation? They're the same. A rubber bands stretched taut between two supports and then plucked is exactly the same as a guitar string except that it's far more compliant. Whatever reasoning explains why a guitar string still makes the same sound even if you pluck it harder is identical to the example already given.
[deleted] t1_jd8pnqm wrote
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