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jthanson t1_j19qly8 wrote

Although I appreciate your pedantry, the use of homophone is appropriate here. Although “have” and “of” are not homophones when pronounced correctly, they are indistinguishable in colloquial speech, especially in American English. The incorrect usage of “of” in place of “have” is a phenomenon of auditory language experience. In that respect, it is homophony that is to blame.

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firephoto t1_j1aqdk8 wrote

Is it pedantry to point out something can't be corrected unless the meaning was already understood? Oh, and what is language for.. oh...

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