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M8dude t1_j28scze wrote

lemme try.

for every x in R such that 1 < x < infty, there is exactly one number (1/x) in R, s.t. 0 < (1/x) < 1.

also vice versa.

there's a bijection between the two sets, therefore they are the same size.

am i missing something?

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unpopular_tooth t1_j28vqfs wrote

TIL the awesome new word “bijection.”

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[deleted] t1_j28wghl wrote

[deleted]

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unpopular_tooth t1_j291m1g wrote

Oh for fuck sake… Yeah, obviously the word didn’t just get invented. New TO ME, okay? I really didn’t think my wording would confuse anyone.

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M8dude t1_j292gvo wrote

oh i thought you were sarcastic, sorry about that..

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unpopular_tooth t1_j2af181 wrote

No problem. Jeez, now I feel like a big bijection for blowing up about it.

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