Submitted by twocupv60 t3_zbkvd2 in MachineLearning
Thakshu t1_iysghrm wrote
If i understand correctly , the question is whether training N clasifiers independently and obtaining their mean result is mathematically equivalent to training N classiefiers together with mean output .
For me it appears as not mathematically equivalent .(Edited a wrong statement here)
The gradient for back prop per step is calculated based on mean output of all classifiers . So the loss values will be smoother than the first case , if the starting point is independently initialized.
Do I have a thinking mistake ?. I can't identify it yet.
twocupv60 OP t1_iysmgyv wrote
The initial error is (y - y_hat)^2 where y_hat is mean(y1, ... yn). So the error is divided up among the y1...yn sequence based on how bad they contribute to the y. If models are trained separately, then thefull error of y is backproped. If the models are trained together, one model might have a lot of error which will influence the proportion assigned to the rest which I believe effectively lowers the learning rate. Is this what you mean by "loss values will be smoother."
Is there a mistake here?
Thakshu t1_iysr30r wrote
I think you are right here. But mathematical equivalence bothers me. Since they end up with dissimilar parameters , are they equivalent?.
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