Submitted by [deleted] t3_zqsnbt in Futurology
illuminatecho t1_j10qvdw wrote
Reply to comment by lordbruwin in What if time travel is impossible because of this? by [deleted]
How can they be at all the same if one is the result of another. Lolol
lordbruwin t1_j10rkxd wrote
Lolol can you really not see how one can be an umbrella term that describes the effects from our pov while the other is the underlying mechanism? Come on buddy, stop pretending it’s that hard to parse.
illuminatecho t1_j10sd6f wrote
Change doesn't describe the effects though friend. "Change" is quite abstract. Neither answer of course explain how the result of an equation can be equivalent to one of it's factors.
lordbruwin t1_j10sp66 wrote
It does though friend. It describes the consequence of the laws of physics in action.
>"Change" is quite abstract.
That has literally been my point lmfao.
>Neither answer of course explain how the result of an equation can be equivalent to one of it's factors.
Nonsense.
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