Submitted by From_My_Brain t3_10nmtud in Connecticut
JustADudeBeingADood t1_j6b4wcv wrote
The landlord has zero incentive in locking your girlfriend into a specific rate/lease if they are selling now. Because if they do that, now they have to find a buyer who wants the property AND is okay with the current lease. This alienates a buyer who maybe wanted to live there themself or want different lease terms.
I am guessing the landlord said "yeah I could...but no" in a nice way but didnt make the rejection clear to your girlfriend.
From_My_Brain OP t1_j6bbco4 wrote
That's not the question.
WonderChopstix t1_j6bjg9z wrote
I think its because your question is all over the place and bc it's scenario driven.
If there is a lease for a tenant and the property is sold.... The new owner must honor the lease unless a) the new owner plans to move in or b) the lease has a clause saying it wouldn't be transferred. (This is general there are always specific scenarios. I haven't read laws in CT revently tho to see if B is still an option).
In this case there is no lease. The current owner would honestly be stupid to offer a lease is they want to sell.
Your girlfriend should look for a new place to live.
ccwilson84 t1_j6bjpcb wrote
The landlord is wrong, it does not automatically become void.
However as stated, the landlord would have to be an idiot to enter into a new lease on a property they intend to sell. That would be a foolish thing to do if you want to sell the property easily and for the most money.
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